Midrash for Rosh Hashanah 7:1
(עזרא ו, ט) ומה חשחן ובני תורין ודכרין ואמרין לעלון לאלה שמיא חנטין מלח חמר ומשח כמאמר כהניא די בירושלם להוא מתיהב להם יום ביום די לא שלו אמר לו רבי יצחק רבי מטונך די להון מהקרבין ניחוחין לאלה שמיא ומצלין לחיי מלכא ובנוהי
And that which they have need of, both young bullocks and rams and lambs, for burnt-offerings to the God of heaven, wheat, salt, wine and oil, according to the word of the priests that are in Jerusalem, let it be give them day by day without fail?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ezra, VI, 9.');"><sup>1</sup></span> - Said R'Isaac to him: [Here is something] out of your own package:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e., the next words in the same passage confute you.');"><sup>2</sup></span>
Sifrei Devarim
"on the festival of matzoth, and on the festival of Shavuoth, and on the festival of Succoth": Because it is written (Ibid. 12:5) "and you shall come there (6) and you shall bring there your sacrifices, etc.," I might think (that if he fails to do so) on the first festival he is in transgression of (Ibid. 23:33) "You shall not delay to pay it"; it is, therefore, written (Bamidbar 29:39) "These shall you offer to the L-rd on your festivals." I might think (that he is in transgression if he does not offer them on the first) two festivals; it is, therefore, written "on the festival of matzoth, and on the festival of Shavuoth, and on the festival of Succoth." We are hereby taught that he is not in transgression until all the festivals of the year have passed. R. Shimon says: Three festivals in order, and Succoth last. R. Elazar b. Shimon says: It need not be written "the festival of Succoth," for that is the subject of the verse. Why is it written? To indicate that it (i.e., passing it) is the cause (of the transgression).
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